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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 22.06.2025 03:58

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What are some examples of the use of the word “piacere” in Italian? What do they mean and how would you translate them into English?

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

The Labour Party wants to put the Winter fuel allowance and the £800,000 of gifts received by ministers behind us. Is this a real option for the people who will suffer as our new masters unapologeticly feast on freebies?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.